ApplicationOverride with apache reverse proxy and different configurations per customer

Micky Williamson mwilliamson at silasg.com
Tue Jul 12 17:42:09 EDT 2016


when you say mapping, I’m assuming you mean it arbitrarily and not with the request mapper….I’m not using that, as it seemed the documentation suggested not to if you had apache in front, versus IIS.

Where is that mapping supposed to take place?  that seems to be my gap of understanding
> On Jul 12, 2016, at 3:36 PM, Cantor, Scott <cantor.2 at osu.edu> wrote:
>
> On 7/12/16, 5:31 PM, "users on behalf of Micky Williamson" <users-bounces at shibboleth.net on behalf of mwilliamson at silasg.com> wrote:
>
>> I’m using c2 as the application id, and /c2/Shibboleth.sso as the handlerUrl.
>
> There is no relationship between those other than the mapping you perform to assign the applicationId to a resource. The handler URL path MUST be mapped to the applicationId you want to use. And that has to be the same applicationId as the resource(s) being associated with that handler. Generally they should share a path prefix if you're going to do this thing you're doing, for simple sanity sake, to keep things together.
>
>> In my apache config,
>>   I have nothing proxying c2, I have a <location cust2> directive in there…so the url
>> /c2/Shibboleth.sso is arriving at the apache server, and the apache server doesn’t know
>> what to do with it..which makes me think I’m supposed to let the apache config know
>> about /c2 as well,  does that sound correct?
>
> It probably means you didn't map /c2 to the applicationId in question (c2). But don't do that. You should be mapping /cust2 to that applicationId (which you probably have done) and using /cust2/Shibboleth.sso as the handler.
>
> -- Scott
>
>
> --
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